Assuming the firm pays origination credit to associates, what share would a non-responsible attorney receive—for example, an L&E attorney who brings in a real estate client? The client is a large corporate entity.

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This varies by firm. My last firm did 10%. The firm before that didn’t have any credit except for a pat on the back.

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I receive 10% of all billables for clients I originate, regardless of which attorney/staff member does the work. This applies to clients I work on with other attorneys and clients that I don’t do any work on.

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I want to make sure I understand the question. If you bring in a client to the firm, that is 100% your client until you deem otherwise. In my experience, the etiquette is to reach out to someone on another team about handling the work and proposing a credit split. I have typically offered to split it 50/50, and I’ve been told that’s more than fair. Law firms favor the origination over worker bees.

This is not how it works at every firm.

I would tread lightly if I were you. At my prior firm, I brought in a litigation client that generated $100+ in legal fees. I was in an adjacent practice area but was knowledgeable in the area but my prior firm required a partner to oversee the matter. My firm didn’t have an origination credit system for associates and basically said don’t ask if it’s not big enough. When I realized what the fees were going to be I asked. I was then shown the door two weeks later because “my practice wasn’t going to grow there.” However, they did ensure they kept the client which they are still billing today, almost a year later.

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